IVP’s With Step Functions — Question 6

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Question 6

Let Ha(t)=0H_a(t)=0 for t<at<a and Ha(t)=1H_a(t)=1 for t≥at\ge a. Use one-sided Laplace transforms. Solutions are continuous (and have continuous first derivative for second-order equations); satisfy the equation away from switches and use one-sided derivatives there. Isolated input values do not change the solution.

Choose two constant force levels to bring an oscillator exactly to rest: y″+y=f(t),y(0)=1,y′(0)=0,f(t)={A,0≤t<a,B,a≤t<T,0,t≥T,a=π4,T=π2.y''+y=f(t),\quad y(0)=1,\quad y'(0)=0,\qquad f(t)=\begin{cases}A,&0\le t<a,\\B,&a\le t<T,\\0,&t\ge T,\end{cases} \quad a=\frac\pi 4,\quad T=\frac\pi 2. Require y(t)=0y(t)=0 for every t≥Tt\ge T. The levels A,BA,B may have either sign.

Tasks

  1. Express ff using steps and derive Y(s)Y(s), including the initial response.

  2. Invert Y(s)Y(s) and derive the two linear equations that the terminal conditions impose on A,BA,B.

  3. Solve for both force levels and prove that they give a unique motion which remains at rest after TT.

  4. Decide whether nonnegative levels could meet the target. Describe the smoothness at both switches and the exact real transform domain of the designed output.

Original worksheet page 1: question and worked solution for 4-7-006
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Question 6 – Solution

Strategy. Exact rest requires two terminal state conditions. Use the step response to convert them into two equations for the two force levels.

Step 1: Transform with the initial displacement. The level changes give f=A+(B−A)Ha(t)−BHT(t)f=A+(B-A)H_a(t)-BH_T(t), so (s2+1)Y−s=A+(B−A)e−as−Be−Tss.(s^2+1)Y-s=\frac{A+(B-A)e^{-as}-Be^{-Ts}}s. Writing r(t)=1−cos⁡tr(t)=1-\cos t, the inverse is y=cos⁡t+Ar(t)+(B−A)Ha(t)r(t−a)−BHT(t)r(t−T).\boxed{y=\cos t+A r(t)+(B-A)H_a(t) r(t-a)-BH_T(t) r(t-T).} The unforced term cos⁡t\cos t supplies the initial data. Since r(0)=r′(0)=0r(0)=r'(0)=0, each added response preserves y,y′y,y' at activation, and r″+r=1r''+r=1 verifies the forcing on each open interval.

Step 2: Impose both terminal conditions. Set c=cos⁡a=sin⁡a=1/2c=\cos a=\sin a=1/\sqrt 2. At T=π/2T=\pi/2 the last response and its derivative still vanish. The terminal values are y(T)=cA+(1−c)B,y′(T)=−1+(1−c)A+cB.y(T)=cA+(1-c)B,\qquad y'(T)=-1+(1-c)A+cB. Thus rest requires cA+(1−c)B=0,(1−c)A+cB=1.cA+(1-c)B=0,\qquad (1-c)A+cB=1.

Step 3: Solve and prove complete rest. The determinant is c2−(1−c)2=2c−1=2−1>0c^2-(1-c)^2=2c-1=\sqrt 2-1>0. Consequently A=−1−c2c−1=−12,B=c2c−1=1+12.A=-\frac{1-c}{2c-1}=\boxed{-\frac 1{\sqrt 2}},\qquad B=\frac c{2c-1}=\boxed{1+\frac 1{\sqrt 2}}. These are the unique levels in the stated two-stage family. The formula satisfies the original IVP and has zero displacement and velocity at TT. For t>Tt>T the forcing is zero, so uniqueness of the homogeneous oscillator with these terminal data implies y(t)=0y(t)=0 there. Matching gives a unique solution on the entire half-line.

Step 4: Check feasibility and regularity. Both weights in cA+(1−c)B=0cA+(1-c)B=0 are positive. If A,B≥0A,B\ge 0, that equation forces A=B=0A=B=0, contradicting the velocity equation. A negative first level is therefore necessary within this family. The motion is C1C^1, while the acceleration jumps are [y″]a=B−A=1+2,[y″]T=−B=−1−12.[y'']_a=B-A=1+\sqrt 2,\qquad [y'']_T=-B=-1-\frac 1{\sqrt 2}. After TT the output is identically zero, so its transform exists for every real s\boxed{\text{every real }s}, despite the apparent denominators in YY.

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 4-7-006

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