Derivatives of Inverse Trig Functions — Question 3

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Question 3

Let f(x)=arcsin⁡(2x1+x2),x>0.f(x)=\arcsin\!\left(\frac{2x}{1+x^2}\right),\qquad x>0.

  • (a) Express ff in terms of arctan⁡x\arctan x, separately for 0<x≤10<x\leq1 and x>1x>1.

  • (b) Find f′(x)f'(x) wherever it exists, and analyze x=1x=1.

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Question 3 - Solution

Put t=arctan⁡xt=\arctan x. For x>0x>0, 0<t<π/20<t<\pi/2 and

2x1+x2=sin⁡(2t).\frac{2x}{1+x^2}=\sin(2t).

The principal range of arcsin\arcsin is [−π/2,π/2][-\pi/2,\pi/2]. Therefore

f(x)={2arctan⁡x,0<x≤1,π−2arctan⁡x,x>1.\boxed{f(x)=\begin{cases}2\arctan x,&0<x\le1,\\\pi-2\arctan x,&x>1.\end{cases}}

Differentiating on the two open intervals gives

f′(x)={2/(1+x2),0<x<1,−2/(1+x2),x>1.\boxed{f'(x)=\begin{cases}2/(1+x^2),&0<x<1,\\-2/(1+x^2),&x>1.\end{cases}}

At x=1x=1 the left and right derivatives are 11 and −1-1, respectively, so no derivative exists there.

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 3-7-003

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