Proof of Various Integral Properties — Question 9

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Question 9

Assume that ff is integrable on [a,b][a,b] and that there exists a real number mm such that f(x)≥mfor all x∈[a,b].f(x)\ge m \quad\text{for all }x\in[a,b]. Prove that ∫abf(x)dx≥m(b−a).\int_a^b f(x)\,dx \ge m(b-a).

Original worksheet page 1: question and worked solution for 7-5-009
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Question 9 - Solution

Define a new function h(x)=f(x)−m.h(x)=f(x)-m.

Since ff is integrable on [a,b][a,b] and mm is a constant, the function hh is also integrable on [a,b][a,b].

From the assumption f(x)≥mf(x)\ge m for all x∈[a,b]x\in[a,b], we have h(x)=f(x)−m≥0for all x∈[a,b].h(x)=f(x)-m\ge 0 \quad\text{for all }x\in[a,b].

By the positivity property of integrals, ∫abh(x)dx≥0.\int_a^b h(x)\,dx \ge 0.

Substitute back for h(x)h(x): ∫ab(f(x)−m)dx≥0.\int_a^b \bigl(f(x)-m\bigr)\,dx \ge 0.

Use linearity of the integral: ∫abf(x)dx−∫abmdx≥0.\int_a^b f(x)\,dx - \int_a^b m\,dx \ge 0.

Since ∫abmdx=m(b−a)\int_a^b m\,dx = m(b-a), we obtain ∫abf(x)dx−m(b−a)≥0.\int_a^b f(x)\,dx - m(b-a) \ge 0.

Rearranging gives ∫abf(x)dx≥m(b−a).\int_a^b f(x)\,dx \ge m(b-a).

∫abf(x)dx≥m(b−a)\boxed{\int_a^b f(x)\,dx \ge m(b-a)}

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 7-5-009

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