Show solutionHide solution+ Question 8 Prove that limx→∞(ln(x+1)−lnx)=0.\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\ln(x+1)-\ln x\right)=0. Question 8 - Solution Combine the logarithms using logarithmic properties: ln(x+1)−lnx=ln(x+1x).\ln(x+1)-\ln x=\ln\!\left(\frac{x+1}{x}\right). Rewrite the fraction: x+1x=1+1x.\frac{x+1}{x}=1+\frac{1}{x}. Thus, the expression becomes ln(1+1x).\ln\!\left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right). Now take the limit as x→∞x\to\infty. Since limx→∞1x=0,\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{1}{x}=0, and the natural logarithm function is continuous at 11, we obtain limx→∞ln(1+1x)=ln(1)=0.\lim_{x\to\infty}\ln\!\left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)=\ln(1)=0. 0\boxed{0}